If feminism is for equality, why do feminists discount evidence of male oppression because “only women are oppressed,” then conclude that only women are oppressed, because there is no evidence to the contrary?



because some men are oppressed but never for being men.

some men are oppressed for being a person of color, for being trans*, for being poor, for being queer.

but never for being a man.

So what do you say to the large amount of evidence demonstrating systemic legal discrimination against men in the courtshealth care spendingreproductive rightsgovernment issue representationsupport for male victims of domestic violence and rape…?

Posted on February 23, 2012
Reblogged from dagestaniprincess-deactivated20, posted by iffeminismisforequality

148 notes

  1. burlyshanks reblogged this from iffeminismisforequality
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  3. soulofapoet reblogged this from lloudmouth
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  5. fuzzyhorns reblogged this from viraginous and added:
    what? what was your point with all that sassiness? i meant that sexism “only works one way” in the sense that it only...
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  7. honingpoes reblogged this from fuzzyhorns
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  9. viraginous reblogged this from fuzzyhorns and added:
    No, I’m sorry. I love your blog and all, and I follow you on my main blog but you’re wrong here. Words mean things,...
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  17. escargoy reblogged this from lalibertarienne and added:
    inb4 those don’t count because only women are oppressed so therefore only women are oppressed.
  18. purgatori reblogged this from sexxxisbeautiful
  19. oldthrashbarg reblogged this from burnout-babe and added:
    I find this argument to be completely invalid. What about alimony, or mandatory circumcision, or accusations of sexual...
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