If feminism is for equality, why do feminists discount evidence of male oppression because “only women are oppressed,” then conclude that only women are oppressed, because there is no evidence to the contrary?
because some men are oppressed but never for being men.
some men are oppressed for being a person of color, for being trans*, for being poor, for being queer.
but never for being a man.
So what do you say to the large amount of evidence demonstrating systemic legal discrimination against men in the courts, health care spending, reproductive rights, government issue representation, support for male victims of domestic violence and rape…?